How exactly is possession decided when there is a fumble and then a big pileup?
Is possession supposed to go to whoever had possession of the ball first, and downed it? Or does possession go to whoever manages to have possession of it when the pile is cleared out?
It seems to me that if someone grabs the ball, has it in their hands, and is lying on the ground with their knees touching the ground, the play should end there. Does that player have to lift the ball off of the ground to have possession or something? It seems like, often, officials are less concerned with trying to determine who had possession first, as opposed to who managed to grab it at the bottom of the pile, even if that isn't who had it first. Seems to me that with replay now they could go to the monitor and see if someone had possession of it before the pileup. Is it just that, in those situations, there usually isn't anyone who maintains control of the ball long enough for it to be considered possession? Or does the timing of a whistle blow affect it?
Is possession supposed to go to whoever had possession of the ball first, and downed it? Or does possession go to whoever manages to have possession of it when the pile is cleared out?
It seems to me that if someone grabs the ball, has it in their hands, and is lying on the ground with their knees touching the ground, the play should end there. Does that player have to lift the ball off of the ground to have possession or something? It seems like, often, officials are less concerned with trying to determine who had possession first, as opposed to who managed to grab it at the bottom of the pile, even if that isn't who had it first. Seems to me that with replay now they could go to the monitor and see if someone had possession of it before the pileup. Is it just that, in those situations, there usually isn't anyone who maintains control of the ball long enough for it to be considered possession? Or does the timing of a whistle blow affect it?
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